The idea that no one cut a piece of meat off a larger cut & cooked it until after 1600 seems preposterous. Associating english seafarers with bison-eating natives pushes it back another hundred and fifty years, until the english started pushing past the Appalachians. So thevtimeline & association doesn't make sense.
We know europeans ate large pieces of meat, because it's economical to cook for a bunch of people at the same time. But how do you prove they didn't eat steaks?
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